Friday, January 7, 2011

Test of Reasoning/Mental Ability/Aptitude

Reasoning Ability : Solved Paper

1. How many such pairs of digits are there in number ‘36725918’ each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the numbers ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

2. What should come next in the following number series ?
6 8 8 1 2 6 8 6 1 2 3 6 8 8 1 2 3 4 6 8 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 ?
(A) 6
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. In a certain code PAGE is written as ‘3%7@’, SORE is written as 8©9@. How is ‘PEAS’ written in that code ?
(A) 3@©8
(B) 3@%9
(C) 3@%8
(D) 3%@8
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. If ‘@’ means ‘x, ‘©’ means ‘÷’, ‘%’ means ‘+’ and ‘$’ means ‘–’ then ………
6 % 12 © 3 @ 8 $ 3 = ?
(A) 37
(B) 35
(C) 39
(D) 33
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. In a certain code ‘MOUSE’ is written as ‘PRUQC’. How is ‘SHIFT’ written in that code ?
(A) VKIRD
(B) VKIDR
(C) VJIDR
(D) VIKRD
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

7. Among A, B, C, D and E each scoring different marks in a test, C scored more than D but not as much as E. E scored more than A who scored less than B. Who score third highest marks ?
(A) B
(B) A
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. ‘K’ walked 5 metre towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10 metre. He then took a right turn and walked for 20 metre, and again took right turn and walked 10 metre. How far he is from the starting point ?
(A) 20 metre
(B) 15 metre
(C) 25 metre
(D) 30 metre
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. Pointing to a girl, Mr. Suraj said “she is the only daughter of my father’s son-in-law”. How is the girl related to Mr. Suraj ?
(A) Niece
(B) Cousin
(C) Sister
(D) Daughter
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (A)

10. Sneha correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is before 16th June but after 11th June whereas her younger brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 13th June but before 18th June and her elder brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is on an even date. On what date in June is definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) Sixteenth
(B) Twelfth
(C) Fourteenth or Sixteenth
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

11. How many such digits are there in the number ‘37152869’ each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CONFIRM’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

13. ‘KN’ is related to ‘QT’ in the same way as ‘DG’ related to ……….
(A) JN
(B) IM
(C) JM
(D) IN
(E) IL
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 14–16) Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below :
518 849 365 783 291

14. If the positions of first and third digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of third highest number ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

15. If the first digit in all the numbers starting with an even digit is replaced by a number preceding it, then which of the following will be the sum of the first digit of the resulting highest and the lowest numbers ?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 6
(E) 13
Ans : (E)

16. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 849
(B) 365
(C) 783
(D) 291
(E) 518
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 17–22) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
Q 9 K # P @ 3 E N S A C G © U M 7 F I V % 4 Z 8 Y

17. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the right end ?
(A) E
(B) P
(C) I
(D) C
(E) @
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifth to the left of ‘V’ ?
(A) 3
(B) A
(C) N
(D) S
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) V
(B) 4
(C) %
(D) E
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) IM%
(B) CNG
(C) 3#N
(D) UGC
(E) GAU
Ans : (D)

21. How many such symbols are there in above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by an alphabet and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

22. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) Two
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 23–28) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

23. Statements :
All coins are glasses.
Some glasses are cups.
Some cups are boxes.
All boxes are pins.
Conclusions :
I. Some coins are cups.
II. Some pins are glasses.
III. Some cups are pins.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Statements :
Some pens are pencils.
All pencils are caps.
All caps are buses.
Some buses are trains.
Conclusions :
I. Some trains are caps.
II. Some pens are buses.
III. Some pencils are trains.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) None follow
(E) All I, II and III follow
Ans : (B)

25. Statements :
All shirts are skirts.
All skirts are banks.
All banks are roads.
All roads are brushes.
Conclusions :
I. All banks are skirts.
II. All roads are banks.
III. Some brushes are shirts.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None follows
Ans : (B)

26. Statements :
Some fishes are plates.
Some plates are spoons.
Some spoons are plants.
All plants are crows.
Conclusions :
I. Some plates are crows.
II. Some crows are spoons.
III. Some plants are spoons.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) None follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) Either I or III follows
Ans : (D)

27. Statements :
Some eggs are hens.
Some hens are ducks.
All ducks are pigeons.
All pigeons are sparrows.
Conclusions :
I. All ducks are sparrows.
II. No egg is duck.
III. Some sparrows are hens.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) All I, II and III follow
Ans : (D)

28. Statements :
No man is tiger.
No tiger is cat.
Some cats are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions :
I. Some tigers are cats.
II. Some cats are men.
III. Some lions are men.
(A) None follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only I follows
(E) Only II and III follow
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 29–33) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P © Q’ means P is not smaller than Q
‘P * Q’ means P is not greater than Q
‘P @ Q’ means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
‘P $ Q’ means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
‘P % Q’ means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answers accordingly.

29. Statements :
K © L, L % O, O @ M, M * N
Conclusions : I. N © O
II. M $ L
III. K * N
IV. L @ N
(A) Only II is true
(B) Only I and II are true
(C) Only I is true
(D) Either I or II is true
(E) None is true
Ans : (B)

30. Statements :
A * B, B $ C, C % D, D © E
Conclusions : I. D $ A
II. B $ D
III. E % C
IV. A @ E
(A) Only I is ture
(B) Only either I or II is true
(C) Only I and IV are true
(D) None is true
(E) Only IV is true
Ans : (D)

31. Statements :
F $ P, P @ R, R © S, S % T
Conclusions : I. R % F
II. S * P
III. P © T
IV. S % F
(A) Only I, II and III are true
(B) Only I and II are true
(C) Only III and IV are true
(D) Only I, II and IV are true
(E) All are true
Ans : (D)

32. Statements :
G % H, H * I, I $ J, J @ K
Conclusions : I. G % I
II. G % J
III. K $ I
IV. H * J
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only I, II and III are true
(D) Only either I or II and III are true
(E) All are true
Ans : (A)

33. Statements :
V @ W, W % X, X * Y, Y $ Z
Conclusions : I. Z $ X
II. Y © V
III. W % Y
IV. Y @ W
(A) Only I and III are true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) None is true
(E) Only III and IV are true
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 34–40) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is fourth to the left of F who is fifth to right of E. D is third to the right of A who is not immediate neighbour of E of F. B is third to left of H who is not immediate neighbour of E.

34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) HFE
(B) DCG
(C) BHF
(D) AEF
(E) CGB
Ans : (D)

35. Who is between D and E ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) A
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following pairs are sitting between A and D ?
(A) FB
(B) GB
(C) FG
(D) FE
(E) GE
Ans : (C)

37. Who is third to the right of E ?
(A) B
(B) F
(C) D
(D) G
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

38. Who is to the immediate right of A ?
(A) G
(B) B
(C) F
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. What is D’s position with respect to B ?
(a) Immediate right
(b) Fourth to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Immediate left
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) Only (d)
(E) Only either (a) or (d)
Ans : (D)

40. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second person ?
(A) CH
(B) GA
(C) BD
(D) FG
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

REASONING – MENTAL ABILITY – APTITUDE

1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to

(1) Supervisor (2) Employee

(3) Organisation (4) Union

(5) Customer

2. Find the odd one out of the following options

(1) Aunt (2) Child

(3) Father (4) Niece

(5) Relation

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. “The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother”. How is Ram related to Mahesh?

(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law

(3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit?

(1) spoon (2) jug

(3) glass (4) saucer

(5) none of these

5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’?

(1) 33 (2) 40

(3) 37 (4) 73

(5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?

(1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD

(3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD

(5) None of these

7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?

(1) Seeta (2) Geeta

(3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?

(1) Mahesh (2) Kamal

(3) Raman (4) Harry

(5) Cannot be determined

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter?

(1) Three (2) One

(3) Two (4) None

(5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:

A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ə J

11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Five

(5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 7 (4) 8

(5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) Two (2) Five

(3) Four (4) Three

(5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?

(1) # (2) 7

(3) U (4) 9

(5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) G$M (2) K9Q

(3) ?D7 (4) 2MU

(5) PCI

16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,'le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’?

(1) in (2) pe

(3) se (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X?

(1) Sister (2) Cousin

(3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO

(3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO

(5) None of these

19. If 1 is coded as Ś, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?

(1) ? + % « # Ś (2) ? + % Ś # «

(3) ? + « % # Ś (4) Ś # « % + ?

(5) None of these

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?

(1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN

(3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO

(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:

Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.

(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.

(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers.

(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.

(iv) No girl advertises soap.

(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

(vi)

21. Who advertises watches?

(1) Deepa (2) Kamal

(3) Aman (4) Priyanka

(5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?

(1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer

(3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap

(5) Come-watch

23. Which channel does Kamal visit?

(1) Go (2) Fun

(3) Come (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?

(1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches

(3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun

(5) None of these

25. What will Jitu advertise?

(1) Chocolates (2) Watches

(3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?

(1) 3 ½ hours (2) 2 ½ hours

(3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Four (4) Three

(5) None of these

28. Find the odd one out

(1) 2 (2) 7

(3) 11 (4) 13

(5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT

(3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT

(5) None of these

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.

(1) 9 (2) 21

(3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’.Letters           
M        
Q        
I          
N        
E         
Y        
U        
G        
R
Numeric Codes           
2         
5         
3         
7         
1         
8         
4         
6         
9


Conditions:

(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Ś.

(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.

(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?

31. ENIMY

(1) 1%28 (2) ?732?

(3) 17328 (4) ?7328

(5) None of these

32. GENIR

(1) ?173? (2) 6%39

(3) 6%79 (4) 61739

(5) None of these

33. QUERI

(1) 5%93 (2) ?413?

(3) ?4139 (4) ?419?

(5) None of these

34. EINUM

(1) 1%72 (2) 0%42

(3) 1374? (4) 1%43

(5) None of these

35. UNGRE

(1) Ś769 Ś (2) 4769 Ś

(3) 47691 (4) Ś7691

(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.

36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink

Conclusions:

I. Some ink are pencils.

II. All ink are lead.

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.

Conclusions:

I. Some ACs are ovens.

II. No. AC is oven.

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.

Conclusions:

I. Some planes are clouds.

II. Some clouds are birds.

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.

Conclusions:

I.. Some sweets are spice.

II. No spice is salt.

40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.

Conclusions:

I. Some plastics are clothes.

II. Some plastics are papers.

Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:

Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language?

I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’.

II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’.

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?

I. P is older than M and N but not O.

II. L is older than O.

43. When is Rahul’s birthday?

I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.

II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.

44. What is the strength of the class?

I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.

II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.

45. How far does Shruti live from the school?

I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school.

II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house.

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:

972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?

(1) 359 (2) 972

(3) 526 (4) 487

(5) 251

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?

(1) None (2) One

(3) Two (4) Three

(5) None of these

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?

(1) None (2) Two

(3) One (4) Three

(5) All five

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?

(1) 251 (2) 359

(3) 487 (4) 526

(5) 972

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?

(1) 972 (2) 526

(3) 487 (4) 251

(5) 359

Answer Key for Mental Aptitude Reasoning

1. (3)    2. (5)    3. (2)    4. (2)    5. (2)
6. (3)    7. (4)    8. (2)    9. (1)    10. (1)
11. (4)  12. (3)  13. (2)  14. (1)  15. (5)
16. (4)  17. (2)  18. (5)  19. (1)  20. (5)
21. (3)  22. (4)  23. (1)  24. (2)  25. (3)
26. (1)  27. (2)  28. (5)  29. (2)  30. (5)
31. (3)  32. (2)  33. (4)  34. (5)  35. (1)
36. (1)  37. (3)  38. (5)  39. (2)  40. (5)
41. (4)  42. (5)  43. (2)  44. (1)  45. (3)
46. (1)  47. (4)  48. (3)  49. (3)  50. (5)
1. A prospect means

a) any customer who walks into the bank

b) an employee of the bank

c) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank's product or service

d) a depositor of the bank'

e) a borrower of the bank

2. A lead means

a) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank's product

b) a political leader

c) a religious leader

d) a bank chairman

e) None of these

3. Innovation means

a) Compensation

b) inspiration

c) additional perquisites

d) implementing new ideas or new methods

e) None of these

4. A Call means

a) calling on friends

b) calling on bank employees

c) calling on prospective customers

d) to make telephone calls

e) calling on relatives

5. The Traditional Marketing style involves

a) Telemarketing

b) Digital Marketing

c) Indirect Marketing

d) Direct Marketing

e) All of these

6. Modern Method of Marketing include

a) Publicity on the net

b) Advertisement on the net

c) Soliciting business through e-mails

d) Tele marketing

e) All of these

7. A true marketing requires

a) Command and other mindset

b) Control Mindset

c) Passive mindset

d) Active mindset

e) None of these

8. Which of the following sentences is true?

a) Marketing is not required in a Buyers' Market

b) Marketing is not required in a Sellers's market

c) Marketing is not required due to competition

d) Marketing is not required due to liberalization

e) Marketing is not required due to globalisation

9. For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities?

a) Creativity

b) Team spirit

c) Motivation

d) Effective communication skills

e) All of these

10. Market information means

a) Knowledge of shops and bazaars

b) Knowledge of shopping malls

c) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix

d) knowledge of various languages

e) None of these

11. Market Research is needed for

a) checking the market area

b) checking the right product to be sold

c) making proper marketing decisions

d) deciding right time to sell

e) All of these

12. Which of the following statement is true

a) Marketing makes the company to go into loss due to higher expenses

b) Marketing is not required in profit making companies

c) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees

d) Marketing is a time bound seasonal function

e) Marketing is a waste of time

13. Marketing plan helps in

a) better lead generation

b) better systems

c) better results

d) improved balance sheet

e) better customer service

14. If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is not required?

a) Advertisement

b) Publicity

c) Market Research

d) Market Segmentation

e) None of these

15. Motivation means

a) Inspiring employees to perform better

b) Better communication skills

c) Sales Coaching

d) Market Research

e) None of these

16. In a Selling Process in today's world?

a) Only standard products are sold

b) No customization required

c) the seller need not have product knowledge

d) the seller should aim at customer satisfaction

e) only quantum of sales matters

17. Find the true statement

a) Marketing is a waste of the employees' time

b) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population

c) Marketing involves additional work

d) Marketing involves team work

e) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement

18. A Target market is

a) entire country

b) entire city

c) entire globe

d) that which consists of customers who need the identified product

e) all of these

19. Sales forecasting involves

a) Sales Planning

b) Sales Pricing

c) Distribution Channels

d) Consumer tastes

e) All of these

20. Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC

a) Shirts

b) Ties

c) Both A and B

d) Liberty

21. SWIFT - cars are being manufactured by

a) DCM

b) Maruti

c) Premier Automobiles

d) Hyundai

22. With you all the way is the slogan of

a) Vodafone

b) SBI

c) ICICI

d) Raymonds

23. Which company used the slogan "The complete Man"

a) DCM

b) GRASIM

c) RAYMONDS

d) VIMAL

24. Which brand uses the slogan "Made for each other" for its cigarettes?

a) Cavenders

b) Four Square

c) Red & White

d) Wills

25. Cross Selling means

a) Identifying customer needs

b) matching the products to customer needs

c) convincing the customers of product benefits

d) responding to questions and objections of customers

e) all of these

ANSWERS


1 (c)    
2 (a)    
3 (d)    
4 ( c)   
5 (d)

6 (e)    
7 (d)    
8 (b)    
9 (e)    
10 (c )

11 (e)  
12 (c)  
13 ( c) 
14 (b)  
15 (a)

16 (d)  
17 (d)  
18 (d)  
19 (e)  
20 (c)

21 (b)  
22 (b)  
23 (c)  
24 (d)  
25 (e)
Business Glossary (Important for Bank PO)


Accounting period:

The period of time covered by business, financial and management accounts. Financial accounts are generally prepared once or twice in twelve calendar months, but the interval of management accounts must be much shorter in order to ensure adequate management control over the regular operations.

Annual Depreciation:

The reduction in book value of an asset at a certain percentage rate per annum.

Appreciation:

An increase in the value of an asset over its purchase price or book value.

Asset:

Any business resource both tangible and intangible acquired at monetary cost and which is expected to be of benefit to the business for a period of time, such as buildings, machinery, etc. Intangibles include goodwill etc. Any resource of a deceased or insolvent person from which claims may be met.

Bad Debt:

A debt which is irrecoverable and is therefore written off as a loss in the accounts of a company/bank etc.

Balance sheet:

Statement of the financial position of a company on a particular date, showing the nature and amount of a company's assets and liabilities on a particular date, usually the end of the accounting year. The assets include fixed assets, investment, current assets (which include Inventories, sundry debtors, cash and bank balances) and loans and advances. The liabilities include shareholders' fund (equity capital plus reserves). Loan funds (secured and unsecured loans) and current liabilities and provisions. The assets and liabilities must balance.

Blank cheque:

A cheque which has been signed and dated but in which the amount payable has not been filled in. This is left for the payee to insert.

Break Even Point:

That level of activity of a business at which neither profit nor loss is incurred, total costs equating with total revenue. Also called break-even performance.

Brokerage:

The payment charged by brokers for their services in arranging a contract. It is usually expressed as a percentage of the monetary value of the contract.

Bullion:

Gold and silver, usually in bar form, which is regarded as a commercial commodity at recognised degrees of purity.

Capital:

All resources which have been produced by mankind and which themselves are used in the process of production. Capital is thus different from land, since this is a natural rather than a man made resource. The total resources of a person or business. The sum of money subscribed by the members of a company, by partners or by an individual when starting a company.

Central Bank:

A bank, usually state owned whose operations are directed by the government as an instrument of financial policy. Typical functions of a central bank include acting as banker to the state and the commercial banks, controlling the note issue and managing the state's currency and credit policies. The German Bundesbank and the American Federal Reserve are the most autonomous of all central banks in the world. RBI will surely count amongst the least autonomous ones. Autonomy of the central bank reduces government extravagancea and minimises political interference.

Cheque:

A written order to banker authorising him to pay a specified sum of money to a person named in the order, to his order or to bearer from funds deposited with the banker.

Consumer Durables:

Solid items bought by the general public for use in the house. These may include washing machines, cookers and refrigerators, which are likely to be in use for several years.

Consumer Goods:

Commodities or services consumed directly to satisfy a want rather than one used to produce something else. For Example: Soft drinks etc. Capital goods (like machineries), on the other hand, are used to generate some other goods.

Credit Rating:

The amount which is credit agency states a borrower is capable of repaying. Credit Rating can be done for stocks, bonds or nations themselves. Some global credit rating agencies are Standard and Poor's (S & P), Moody's etc. CRISIL is the Indian agency rating bonds etc.

CRISIL or Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited:

Jointly sponsored by the UTI and the Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI), CRISIL has been functioning since January 1988. It rates the safety and timely payment of interest on debt securities like debentures and fixed deposits of public and private sector companies. The rating, subjected to periodic review, is given in alphabetical symbols preceded by d for Debentures and F for Fixed Safety, an adequate safety, B inadequate safety, C high risk, D default.

Debentures:

An instrument of debt, called bond in the US. A debenture holder is a creditor to the company who loans funds for a period of 7-10 years against a fixed rate of interest. After the stipulated loan period the debentures are redeemed, i.e., the loan is paid back, sometimes with a very small premium. Debentures are generally secured against the company's assets. Convertible debentures can be either fully or partly converted into a certain number of shares, usually at a premium, after a stated period of time. Convertible debentures may carry a lower rate of interest than non convertible debentures investment; there is little risk but also little prospect of appreciation.

Debt-Equity Ratio:

Also called financial Leverage ratio in the US. There are three methods of calculating this ratio, the last being more common:

1. The total liabilities of a company divided by the shareholders' equity

2. The total long term debt divided by shareholders' equity

3. The total long term debt plus the par value of preference shares divided by the par value of equity shares. All the three ratios measure a company's solvency.

Depreciation:

1. The reduction in the value of an asset through wear and tear, obsolescence, etc. 2. An accounting device by means of which the value of an asset is converted into an expense for each of the accounting periods during which the asset is expected to contribute value.

Disinflation:

The process or policy of removing pressures on the economy which are forcing prices upwards and the real value of the monetary unit downwards. Pressure may be removed by curtailing expenditure through credit restrictions and a dear money policy, and by taxation.

Deficit:

An excess of liabilities over assets or of expenditure over revenue.

Disinvestment:

Especially in the Indian context, it refers to the process of offloading of shares in a firm by a party. The government of India has partially disinvested its holding in several Public Sector undertaking (PSUs) with the ultimate aim of privatising them to increase accountability and productivity.

Elasticity of Demand:

A measurement of economics of the degree of response of a change in one factor to a change in a related factor, expressed in a price demand, price supply or demand income relationships.

Floating Capital:

Funds available for carrying on a business, including funds employed in marketable investments.

Foreign Exchange:

The process of trading one currency for another. This takes place on the international exchange markets where trading sets the exchange rates of currencies. Foreign currency is required by individuals, business and governments to finance the purchase of goods and services and to make loans to other countries.

Free Market Economy:

An economic system where the government does not interfere in any way in business activity.

Golden Handshake:

Compensation paid to an executive of a company on his displacement and especially on his retirement.

Gross Domestic Product:

The value of goods and services produced in an economy. The value may be measured by aggregating market values of goods and services or by aggregating incomes from employment, profits, dividends, etc. (i.e., factor cost, which is equivalent to market values less purchase tax plus subsidies). It is equivalent to gross national product less the value of net property abroad.

Gross National Product:

The total monetary value of all the goods and services produced by a country in a year, expressed either at factor cost or at market prices.

Inflation:

The rate at which prices grow in an economy. Thus, reduced rate of inflation would mean that the rate at which prices will rise has slowed down, but not that the prices will fall.

Liquid Assets:

Assets that can be converted into cash comparatively quickly. They are widely regarded as comprising shares, short term bills of exchange, bank deposits and cash itself.

Lay off:

The temporary dismissal of a worker because there is no work to be done.

Merchandise:

Goods which are offered for sale.

National Income:

The sum of the value of goods and services available to an economy through its economic activity in a given time period. The income many be evaluated:

1. by adding the incomes generated by economic activity, e.g., wages, salaries, dividends, profits and net income from abroad;

2. by adding the prices of goods and services, less indirect taxes plus subsidies, together with government expenditure. Both methods produce similar total and the movement in the total is indicative of economic progress over time, once allowance is made for price inflation, population growth, etc. Growth of national income need not be synonymous with improvement in living standards

Real Interest Rate:

Current interest rate less the rate of inflation; of relevance in decision regarding long term fixed interest securities. Since most current interest is taxed, the post tax interest is likely to fall below double digit inflation rates, which means a steady erosion of capital.

Redemption:

Buying back a loan instrument by paying off the lender. In the case of debentures or preference shares redemption means paying back the investor, either in cash, or through equity shares.

Sensex:

it is the sensitive index of the Bombay Stock Exchange. It reflects the weighted average price of 30 most volatile A Group shares on the BSE. Widely criticised to be an unrepresentative but highly influential index.

Yield:

The actual rate of return received or obtainable from an investment, generally as the annual income calculated as a percentage of the purchase price of the investment. The rate of return for a capital investment project which equates the net capital expenditure with the discounted value of futures net cash inflows. The output of a process.
Directions (51-75): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?

51. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?

(1) 196.153

(2) 149.153

(3) 169.153

(4) 176.135

(5) None of these

52. ? x 19 = 7828

(1) 411

(2) 412

(3) 413

(4) 414

(5) 415

53. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?

(1) 200.04

(2) 201.04

(3) 200.14

(4) 202.14

(5) 203.04

54. 734 / ? = 91.75

(1) 8

(2) 6

(3) 4

(4) 10

(5) None of these

55. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?

(1) 105

(2) 115

(3) 70

(4) 35

(5) None of these

56. 5938+4456+2891 = ?

(1) 15255

(2) 14285

(3) 13285

(4) 12385

(5) None of these

57. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?

(1) 1585.91

(2) 1286.94

(3) 1950.02

(4) 1950.11

(5) 1951.01

58. 434 x 645=?

(1) 27840

(2) 297930

(3) 279903

(4) 279930

(5) None of these

59. 7 x ? =29.05

(1) 4.05

(2) 4.15

(3) 3.95

(4) 4.28

(5) None of these

60. 725 / 25 - 13 = ?

(1) 16

(2) 29

(3) 12

(4) 18

(5) None of these

61. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?

(1) 314

(2) 313

(3) 312

(4) 311

(5) None of these

62. 806 / 26 =?

(1) 30

(2) 32

(3) 34

(4) 36

(5) None of these

63. 559 + 995 = ? x 16

(1) 92.05

(2) 95.25

(3) 93.15

(4) 94.35

(5) None of these

64. ((337 +146) x 8)=?

(1) 3884

(2) 1515

(3) 3864

(4) 1505

(5) 3846

65.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

66. 4758-2782-1430=?

(1) 356

(2) 396

(3) 486

(4) 546

(5) None of these

67. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =?

(1) 423.25

(2) 68.25

(3) 593.775

(4) 472.5

(5) None of these

68.

(1) 43

(2) 45

(3) 47

(4) 49

(5) 51

69.

(1) 1444

(2) 1442

(3) 1448

(4) 1456

(5) 1460

70.

(1) 25

(2) 64

(3) 8

(4) 7.5

(5) None of these

71. 248 of  +110 of 20% = ?

(1) 192

(2) 202

(3) 212

(4) 239

(5) 242

72.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(5)

73.

(1) 1511

(2) 1531

(3) 1515

(4) 1553

(5) 1521

74. 484 of  + 366 of = ?

(1) 663

(2) 844

(3) 668

(4) 848

(5) 666

75. 280% of 460 =?

(1) 1188

(2) 1284

(3) 1288

(4) 1280

(5) None of these

76. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?

(1) 118 x 13+209 x 42

(2) 174 x 10+222 x 19

(3) 173 x 12+221 x 24

(4) 169 x 16+167 x 50

(5) None of these

77. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?

(1) Rs. 3.377

(2) Rs. 4.473

(3) Rs. 4.377

(4) Rs. 4.743

(5) Rs. 4.347

78. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance covered by the bus?

(1) 343 km

(2) 283 km

(3) 353 km

(4) 245 km

(5) 340 km

79. th of  th of a number is 82. What is the number?

(1) 410

(2) 820

(3) 420

(4) 220

(5) None of these

80. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?

(1) 20

(2) 21

(3) 22

(4) 23

(5) None of these

81. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three?

(1) 12

(2) 15

(3) 13

(4) 16

(5) None of these

82. Find the average of the following set of scores:

118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229

(1) 148

(2) 152

(3) 156

(4) 160

(5) 175

83. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of bananas and 3 dozen of apples?

(1) Rs. 216

(2) Rs. 108

(3) Rs. 189

(4) Rs. 225

(5) Rs. 162

84. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?

(1) 43

(2) 48

(3) 55

(4) 53

(5) 62

85. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?

(1) 59

(2) 58

(3) 57

(4) 56

(5) None of these

86. What is 184 times 156?

(1) 28704

(2) 29704

(3) 30604

(4) 27604

(5) None of these

87. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

5989 48 11=?

(1) 1375

(2) 1370

(3) 1372

(4) 1368

(5) 1365

88. If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much amount will each student get?

(1) Rs. 206

(2) Rs. 210

(3) Rs. 204

(4) Rs. 218

(5) Rs. 212

89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ?

(1) 2408

(2) 2426

(3) 7310

(4) 7130

(5) 2139

90. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku's share in the profit?

(1) Rs. 1,530

(2) Rs. 1,540

(3) Rs. 1,200

(4) Rs. 1,180

(5) None of these

91. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of the plot?

(1) Rs. 2,091

(2) Rs. 1,981

(3) Rs. 1,991

(4) Rs. 1,891

(5) None of these

92. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number?

(1) 95

(2) 100

(3) 105

(4) 108

(5) 112

93. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly?

(1) 45 years

(2) 40 years

(3) 35 years

(4) 30 years

(5) 25 years

94. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers?

(1) 120

(2) 124

(3) 140

(4) 144

(5) 150

95. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300. What was the original price of one toy?

(1) Rs. 24

(2) Rs. 29

(3) Rs. 30

(4) Rs. 15

(5) Rs. 20

96. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?

(1) 7

(2) 3

(3) 5.5

(4) 6.5

(5) None of these

97. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the same job?

(1) 2

(2) 5

(3)

(4)

(5)

98. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set?

(1) Rs. 9,200

(2) Rs. 7,200

(3) Rs. 8,600

(4) Rs. 9,800

(5) Rs. 10,000

99. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in the examination?

(1) 86

(2) 88

(3) 84

(4) 90

(5) None of these

100. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?



(1) 126

(2) 124

(3) 130

(4) 132

(5) 136

ANSWERS

51. (3), 52. (2), 53. (1), 54. (1), 55. (1), 56. (3), 57. (4), 58. (4), 59. (2), 60. (1)
61. (5), 62. (5), 63. (2), 64. (3), 65. (2), 66. (4), 67. (1), 68. (3), 69. (1), 70. (4)
71. (4), 72. (2), 73. (5), 74. (3), 75. (3), 76. (3), 77. (4), 78. (1), 79. (2), 80. (2)
81. (5), 82. (5), 83. (1), 84. (4), 85. (4), 86. (1), 87. (3), 88. (3), 89. (5), 90. (5)
91. (4), 92. (3), 93. (2), 94. (4), 95. (5), 96. (2), 97. (5), 98. (1), 99. (2), 100. (1)


1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:
10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050

19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m

20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) ½

23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0

34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450

35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle

36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180

37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre

38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6

40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3

41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr

43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31
Answers

1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A 2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A 3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B 4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C 5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A 6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C 7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B 8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D 9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B 10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DOUBTS each of which has many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. None of these

2. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three

3. In a certain code GUIDE is written as 49132 and BEAM is written as 8257. How is IMAGE written in the code?
1. 17542
2. 15742
3. 27541
4. 18542
5. None of these

4. What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A H G F E D C B A H F E D C B A H
1. G
2. E
3. F
4. I
5. None of these

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. Mustard
2. Jowar
3. Wheat
4. Paddy
5. Bajra

6. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 536142 each of which has many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. 45
2. 35
3. 85
4. 25
5. 75

8. In certain code ORGANISE is the written as BHSPDRHM. How is DESTINED written in that code?
1. SRDCCDMH
2. SRDCEFOJ
3. UTFECDMH
4. UTFEEFMH
5. None of these

9. ‘FI’ is related to ‘KN’ in the same way as ‘PS’ is related to
1. VY
2. UX
3. WZ
4. UY
5. None of these

10. ‘Day’ is related to ‘Night’ in the same way as ‘White’ is related to?
1. Green
2. Red
3. Yellow
4. Blue
5. Black

11. If ‘P’ denotes ‘÷’; ‘Q’ denotes ‘-’; ‘R’ denotes ‘X’ and T denotes ‘+’; then 24T16Q32P8R4 = ?
1. 4
2. 39
3. 1/4
4. 40
5. None of these

12. ‘Steel’ is related to ‘Alloy’ in the same way as ‘zinc’ is related to?
1. Metal
2. Alloy
3. Non-Metal
4. Halogen
5. Compound

Directions for Questions # 13 to 16
Following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
528 619 374 295 483

13. If the positions of the first and the third digits in each number are reserved, which of the following will be the middle digit of the lowest number?
1. 2
2. 1
3. 7
4. 9
5. 8

14. If the position of the first and the second digits within each number are reserved which of the following will be the third digit of the highest number?
1. 8
2. 9
3. 4
4. 5
5. 3

15. If the position of the second and the third digits within each number are reversed, which of the following will be the sum of the first and the second digits of the second highest number?
1. 13
2. 15
3. 7
4. 11
5. 12

16. If the second digit of the second lowest number is subtracted from the third digit of the highest number, what will be the outcome?
1. 4
2. 2
3. 6
4. 5
5. None of these

Directions for Questions # 17 to 22
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
P 4 D % I 9 K 1 J 3 # T 6 @ A Q 2 Z © 5 * 7 E W $ 8 B H

17. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the sixteenth from the right end of the above arrangement?
1. 5
2. 1
3. 7
4. K
5. None of these

18. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a symbol?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three

19. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of sixth to the right of K?
1. 3
2. T
3. 2
4. Q
5. None of these

20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. 9FI
2. Z52
3. 7W*
4. W78
5. @Q6

21. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the fifteenth from the left end?
1. T
2. Q
3. 6
4. Z
5. None of these

22. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Clove
(B) Cinnamon
(C) Pepper
(D) Cardamom
(E) Apricot

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXPERIMENT each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters EOPR, using each letter only once ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

4. Pointing to a photograph Rasika said “He is the grandson of my grandmother’s only son.” How is the boy in photograph related to Rasika ?
(A) Son
(B) Nephew
(C) Brother
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

5. In a certain code ‘open the door’ is written as ‘ka te jo’ ‘door is closed’ is written as ‘jo pa ma’ and ‘this is good’ is written as ‘la ra pa’. What is the code for ‘closed’ ?
(A) ma
(B) pa
(C) jo
(D) ka
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 6 to 10) These questions are based on the following letter / number / symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions :
7 D 5 # A B 1 % K $ 4 E J F 3 * 2 H I @ L 6 Q U © 9 M T 8 W

6. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) K41
(B) *HF
(C) #B5
(D) M8©
(E) LQI

8. Which of the following pairs of elements does not have the second element, immediately followed by the first element ?
(A) 5#
(B) MT
(C) $4
(D) 3F
(E) @L

9. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and also immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

10. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
A # D $K1 3FE ?
(A) @I2
(B) *HI
(C) H2@
(D) HIL
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements :
Some shoes are socks.
All socks are towels.
All towels are bedsheets.
No bedsheet is blanket.
Conclusions :
I. No towel is blanket.
II. Some shoes are towels.
III. Some shoes are bedsheets.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these

12. Statements :
Some fruits are flowers.
Some flowers are buds.
No bud is leaf.
All leaves are plants.
Conclusions :
I. No plant is bud.
II. Some plants are flowers.
III. Some buds are fruits.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these

13. Statements :
Some pearls are gems.
Some gems are diamonds.
All diamonds are rings.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusions :
I. Some bangles are rings.
II. All rings are diamonds.
III. All diamonds are bangles.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these

14. Statements :
All chairs are tables.
All tables are telephones.
All telephones are cell phones.
No cell phone is computer.
Conclusions :
I. All cell phones are tables.
II. Some chairs are computers.
III. No chair is computer.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either II or III follows
(E) None of these

15. Statements :
Some rocks are hills.
All hills are mountains.
All mountains are rivers.
No river is Canal.
Conclusions :
I. All rocks are rivers.
II. Some hills are canals.
III. Some rivers are canals.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) Only II follows
(E) None follows

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Eight friends Savita, Radhika, Amita, Nisha, Rani, Jyoti, Meeta and Anjali are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Savita is second to the right of Anjali, but is not a neighbour of Amita. Nisha is third to the left of Amita but is not next to Savita. Jyoti is second to the right of Rani and third to the left of Meeta.

16. Who is second to the left of Anjali ?
(A) Radhika
(B) Rani
(C) Amita
(D) Meeta
(E) None of these

17. Who is to the immediate right of Nisha ?
(A) Jyoti
(B) Radhika
(C) Meeta
(D) Jyoti or Radhika
(E) None of these

18. Which of the following is the correct position of Rani ?
(A) To the immediate right of Anjali
(B) To the immediate left of Anjali
(C) To the immediate right of Savita
(D) Next to Jyoti
(E) None of these

19. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of Nisha ?
(A) Jyoti and Meeta
(B) Radhika and Meeta
(C) Savita and Jyoti
(D) Radhika and Jyoti
(E) None of these

20. Who is to the immediate left of Savita ?
(A) Jyoti
(B) Anjali
(C) Rani
(D) Meeta
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If a two digit even number is followed by another even number the first one is to be divided by the second one.
(ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number, the two are to be multiplied.
(iii) If an odd number is followed by another odd number the two are be added.
(iv) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is the perfect square, the second number is to be subtracted from the first number.
(v) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is not the perfect square, the first number is to be divided by the second number.

21. 16 7 25
m 23 22
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 132
(B) 88
(C) 122
(D) 78
(E) None of these

22. 97 45 71
48 8 11
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows ?
(A) 68
(B) 19
(C) 147
(D) 64
(E) None of these

23. 125 64 33
282 x 39
If ‘x’ is resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 45
(B) 42
(C) 39
(D) 36
(E) None of these

24. 84 14 13
360 24 17
What the difference between the resultant of the first row and the second row ?
(A) 100
(B) 46
(C) 56 (D) 90
(E) None of these

25. 24 7 81
x 27 19
If ‘x’ is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 87
(B) 114
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below it—
Seven professionals A, B, C, D, E, F and G are practicing their professions in different cities Chennai, Banglore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different profession Doctor, Engineer, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Counsellor, Professor and Artist not necessarily in the same order.

A is a Pharmacist and practises in Bhubaneshwar. D practises in Banglore but is not a Doctor or an Artist. The one who practises in Hyderabad is a Professor. G is a
Counsellor and does not practise in Mumbai or Chennai. E is a Lawyer and practises in Ahmedabad. F practises in Chennai but is not an artist. C practises in Mumbai.

26. What is D’s profession ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Professor
(C) Engineer
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

27. Who is the professor ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
(E) None of these

28. Which of the following combinations of profession and place is correct ?
(A) Pharmacist—Jaipur
(B) Engineer—Chennai
(C) Doctor—Bangalore
(D) Artist—Mumbai
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following persons work in Jaipur ?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) C
(D) B or G
(E) None of these

30. Who is the Doctor ?
(A) D
(B) B
(C) C
(D) B or C
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer :
(A) If only I follows.
(B) If only II follows.
(C) If either I or II follows.
(D) If neither I nor II follows.
(E) If both I and II follow.

31. Statement : Cases of road accidents are increasing constantly, particularly in the urban areas.
Courses of action :
I. Transport Authorities in the urban areas should impose stringent norms for maintenance of vehicles.
II. Traffic police should severely punish those found to be violating traffic rules.

32. Statement : Despite good economic progress of the country, significant number of undernourished children has been observed in the rural parts of the country.
Courses of action :
I. Government should increase Wealth Tax/Income Tax and use that money for upliftment of the deprived class.
II. Govt. should introduce schemes like free meals in primary schools and make primary education compulsory.

33. Statement : Launching of new brands of four wheelers is adding to the traffic congestion in the metro cities.
Courses of action :
I. Public should be encouraged to share their private vehicles while travelling to their work places.
II. Govt. should levy heavy taxes on motor cars in metro cities.

34. Statement : Increasing levels of air-pollution is creating healthhazards for people living in the cities.
Courses of action :
I. All industries should be shifted to the outskirts of the cities.
II. Transport Authorities should take steps for converting all public transport vehicles to run on CNG.

35. Statement : Large number of college students are found to be focusing more on fashion than on studies.
Courses of action :
I. Colleges should impose restrictions on use of fashionable clothes and accessories.
II. Colleges should keep the students busy enough with studies, so that they don’t find time for other things like fashion.

Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes
or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer :
(A) If statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
(B) If statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
(C) If both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

36. (A) Parents in the locality decided to stop sending their children to school by privatevehicles.
(B) A major accident of a private van carrying school children lead to deaths of few and injuries for many children.

37. (A) The city observed lowest temperature of the last decade accompanied by heavy fog during the week.
(B) Most of the flights from the city were indefinitely delayed causing panic among the passengers.

38. (A) In the past few years the job market has improved for the professionally qualified youth.
(B) Many youth are not able to get jobs upto their expectations.

39. (A) During peak hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing traffic jams in most parts of the city.
(B) Many companies are planning to launch low priced vehicles.

40. (A) During evening hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing very slow movement of vehicles.
(B) Pollution level in the air has substantially increased in the recent past.
Answers

1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C) 21. (E) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (E) 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (E) 35. (E) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (D)



Allahabad Bank Exam 2008 -  General Awareness

1. India test-fired Agni III on—
(A) May 15, 2008
(B) May 17, 2008
(C) May 20, 2008
(D) May 7, 2008


2. Which one of the following countries is not included in the elite club which India joined after its successful test firing of Agni III—
(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) U.K.
(D) France


3. M. Natrajan is—
(A) Scientific Advisor to the Defence Minister
(B) Chief Controller and Programme Director of Agni Missile System
(C) Scientific Advisor to the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above


4. Currently which one of the following organizations is celebrating its golden jubilee (year) ?
(A) ISRO
(B) CBI
(C) DRDO
(D) NASSCOM


5. India and Malaysia held their joint naval exercise at—
(A) Andman island
(B) Nicobar island
(C) Lumut
(D) Kualalampur


6. SERB stands for—
(A) Social Enlightenment and Research Board
(B) Scientific And Engineering Research Board
(C) Scientists’ and Engineers’ Research Board
(D) Science and Engineering Research Board


7. CEP (Circular Error Probability) is associated with—
(A) Prithvi II
(B) Chandryan I
(C) Narco Analysis test conducted on Aarushis’ alleged murderer
(D) The finalization of Indo-US Nuclear deal


8. The country which recently announced to have its own version of Star Wars—
(A) France
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) North Korea


9. The Indian state which, in May 2008, launched Food Security Scheme—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Jammu & Kashmir


10. The most coveted award at the 61st Cannes Film Festival was received by—
(A) ‘Hunger’
(B) Line of Passage
(C) ‘The Class’
(D) Three Monkeys


11. The Winner of the Scripps National Spelling Bee Contest is—
(A) Ravi Kumar
(B) Sameer Mishra
(C) Kuljit Singh
(D) None of these


12. ‘Travelling Through Conflict’ is a book written by—
(A) Hamid Ansari
(B) Cherie Blair
(C) Balraj Krishna
(D) Salman Rushdie


13. According to the Global Peace Index released in May 2008, the most peaceful country on the earth is—
(A) New Zealand
(B) Norway
(C) Denmark
(D) Iceland


14. Which of the following was recently granted Navratna status to ?
(A) PGCIL
(B) REC
(C) NALCO
(D) All the above


15. In terms of billionaire population, Mumbai ranks…… at world level?
(A) Sixth
(B) Fifth
(C) Fourth
(D) Seventh


16. According to a report, the number of Indians who have a problem of loud snoring during sleep is—
(A) 35 million
(B) 36 million
(C) 40 million
(D) 45 million


17. The government has planned to establish ………… universities of global standards across the country?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 20
(D) 16


18. The government has increased Minimum Support Price of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Cane
(D) None of these


19. India recently refused to accept the offer of funds/loans from World Bank for—
(A) Disaster management
(B) North-East projects
(C) Tiger protection
(D) None of the above


20. Yves Saint Laurent recently died. He was a—
(A) U.S.A. film director
(B) First man to go to Mars mission
(C) Renowned fashion designer
(D) An internationally renowned financial expert
Answers:
1.(D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20 (C)